Can it be right that, even in an avoidance case, a taxpayer and his/her company, are taxed on the basis of alternative, mutually exclusive, analyses of the same transaction? HMRC seems to think so – and technically neither the taxpayer or his company are being taxed twice on the same income – but it hardly seems just.
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Can it be right that, even in an avoidance case, a taxpayer and his/her company, are taxed on the basis of alternative, mutually exclusive, analyses of the same transaction? HMRC seems to think so – and technically neither the taxpayer or his company are being taxed twice on the same income – but it hardly seems just.
If you are not a subscriber, subscribe now to read this content.
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